Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "p...

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

You'll usually find your answer there.

Hickman's just lost 95% of Arizona chickens to bird flu and says it will take 2 years to rebuild - KJZZ

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Why do Democrats keep calling Patriots/President Trump supporters "sore losers"? Do they purposefully ignore the massive fraud that took place, or genuinely think that there was zero fraud?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

There's no rule.

Amazon is selling a $1,700 work laptop for $300, and shoppers say it's 'very easy to set up and use' - TheStreet

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Read also: